Chicago Bears center Drew Dalman will reportedly retire this offseason at the age of 27, according to multiple reports. ESPN’s Adam Schefter was the first to report the news Tuesday.

Dalman had just spent his first season with the Bears last year after general manager Ryan Poles signed him to a three-year, $42 million deal. Dalman was part of a major offensive line revamp last offseason that included trades for Joe Thuney and Jonah Jackson.

Dalman made a major impact for the Bears and quarterback Caleb Williams in his lone season with the team. He helped Chicago have one of the best offensive lines in the NFL, paving the way for one of the league’s best rushing attacks and protecting Williams from pressure.

It resulted in one of Dalman’s best seasons. He allowed just one sack and 31 quarterback pressures during the season, which led to Dalman’s first Pro Bowl honors.

Dalman had completed his fifth season in the NFL. He started his career with the Atlanta Falcons and spent four seasons with the team before signing with Chicago. Before then, Dalman spent four seasons at Stanford, where he eventually became a fourth-round pick in 2021.

The move will likely switch up the Bears’ priorities this offseason. Chicago seemed mostly set with its offensive line with Thuney, Jackson and right tackle Darnell Wright returning.

The Bears will have to decide what they want to do with the left tackle spot, which was left vacant after starter Ozzy Trapilo injured his patellar tendon against the Green Bay Packers in the NFC Wild Card game. Poles had previously said that Trapilo will miss most of the upcoming season recovering from his injury.

Now the Bears will need to quickly decide whether they want to approach the center position in free agency, which will start next week, or in April’s draft. Dalman carried a $14 million salary cap hit, which will come off the books with his retirement.